Prove that [tex]\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{2}}=\frac{\pi^{2}}{6}[/tex] by expanding the function [tex]f(x)=x^{2}[/tex] in a Fourier series on the interval [tex]\left[-\pi, \pi\right][/tex].
Solution:
The function [tex]x^{2}[/tex] is even, so all sine coefficients vanish, [tex]b_n=0[/tex], and
[tex]a_n=\frac{2}{\pi}\int_{0}^{\pi}x^{2}\cos nx\,dx[/tex]
For [tex]n=0[/tex] we get [tex]a_0=\frac{2}{\pi}\times \frac{\pi^{3}}{3}=\frac{2\pi^{2}}{3}[/tex]. For [tex]n\ge 1[/tex] we integrate by parts twice:
[tex]\int_{0}^{\pi}x^{2}\cos nx\,dx=\left[\frac{x^{2}\sin nx}{n}\right]_{0}^{\pi}-\frac{2}{n}\int_{0}^{\pi}x\sin nx\,dx=-\frac{2}{n}\int_{0}^{\pi}x\sin nx\,dx[/tex]
[tex]\int_{0}^{\pi}x\sin nx\,dx=\left[-\frac{x\cos nx}{n}\right]_{0}^{\pi}+\frac{1}{n}\int_{0}^{\pi}\cos nx\,dx=-\frac{\pi(-1)^{n}}{n}[/tex]
Therefore
[tex]\int_{0}^{\pi}x^{2}\cos nx\,dx=\frac{2\pi(-1)^{n}}{n^{2}},\qquad a_n=\frac{4(-1)^{n}}{n^{2}}[/tex]
The [tex]2\pi[/tex]-periodic extension of [tex]x^{2}[/tex] from [tex]\left[-\pi, \pi\right][/tex] is continuous (its values at [tex]\pm\pi[/tex] coincide) and piecewise smooth, so by Dirichlet's theorem its Fourier series converges to it at every point:
[tex]x^{2}=\frac{a_0}{2}+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n\cos nx=\frac{\pi^{2}}{3}+4\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{n}}{n^{2}}\cos nx,\quad x\in\left[-\pi, \pi\right][/tex]
Put [tex]x=\pi[/tex]. Since [tex]\cos n\pi=(-1)^{n}[/tex], we have [tex](-1)^{n}\cos n\pi=1[/tex] and
[tex]\pi^{2}=\frac{\pi^{2}}{3}+4\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{2}}\Rightarrow\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{2}}=\frac{1}{4}\left(\pi^{2}-\frac{\pi^{2}}{3}\right)=\frac{\pi^{2}}{6}[/tex]