Why is RH optimum?

Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Mon Mar 13, 2023 7:59 am

Guest wrote:Important Remark: The divergent Harmonic Series, [tex]\sum_{k=1}^{\infty }\frac{1}{k} = \infty[/tex] implies the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic, integer [tex]k \ge 1[/tex], [tex]\sum_{k=1}^{\infty }\frac{1}{k^z} = 0[/tex], and the truth of the Riemann Hypothesis. :D


Important Update:

What is best?

[tex]\sum_{k=1}^{ \infty } \frac{1}{k} = \sum_{i=1}^{ \infty } p_{i } +[/tex] error [tex]= \infty[/tex].

We assume [tex]p_{i }[/tex] is ith positive prime number.

Why?

"We, humans, learn, but Nature knows."

Two Important Reasons:

1. It is logical and consistent that we apply the basic prime number test (refer to the Fundamental Rule/Law of Prime Number Theory above) to each term of the above series excluding the error term since the error term is not a positive integer (right?). The basic prime number test computes [tex]p_{i } ^{ \frac{1}{2} }[/tex] for all [tex]i \ge 1[/tex], and it is used to determine the primality of each appropriate term.


2.
Guest wrote:In a nutshell, [tex]\zeta(z = 1) = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty }\frac{1}{k} = \infty[/tex] if and only if [tex]\zeta(z = \frac{1}{2} ± bi ) = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty }\frac{1}{k^{ \frac{1}{2} ± bi}} = 0.[/tex] :D


Relevant Reference Link: Prove the Harmonic Series diverges to infinity.
Guest
 

Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Mon Mar 13, 2023 9:00 am

Oops! :cry:

I think I created a mess ([tex]\sum_{k=1}^{ \infty } \frac{1}{k} = \sum_{i=1}^{ \infty } p_{i } +[/tex] error [tex]= \infty[/tex]...) with the last post since there is no apparent correlation between primes and zeta zeros... Furthermore, primes (p) and non-primes (2p, 3p, 4p, ...) coexist...

Sorry! I'll think about the mess I created and how to fix it. Goodbye!

Dave.
Guest
 

Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Mon Mar 13, 2023 9:25 am

Guest wrote:The Fix:

[tex]\sum_{k=1}^{ \infty } \frac{1}{k} = p + 2p + 3p + 4p + 5p + ...[/tex] + error [tex]= \infty[/tex] where p is any positive prime number....
Guest
 

Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Wed Mar 15, 2023 4:48 pm

Guest wrote:The Fix:

[tex]\sum_{k=1}^{ \infty } \frac{1}{k} = p + 2p + 3p + 4p + 5p + ...[/tex] + error = [tex]\sum_{k=1}^{ \infty }kp[/tex] + error = [tex]\infty[/tex] where p is any positive prime number....


In a nutshell, [tex]\zeta(z = 1) = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty }\frac{1}{k} = \infty[/tex] if and only if [tex]\zeta(z = \frac{1}{2} ± bi ) = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty }\frac{1}{k^{ \frac{1}{2} ± bi}} = 0.[/tex] :D
Guest
 

Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Wed Mar 15, 2023 4:56 pm

There are infinitely many prime numbers, and there are also infinitely many simple nontrivial zeta zeros (z) with Re(z) = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex].

Go figure! Go Blue! :D
Guest
 

Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Thu Apr 20, 2023 12:34 pm

Given [tex]\zeta(z = \frac{1}{2} ± bi ) = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty }\frac{1}{(kp)^{ \frac{1}{2} ± bi}} = 0[/tex] and p = 127, compute b.
Guest
 

Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Thu Apr 20, 2023 1:15 pm

Guest
 

Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Sat Apr 22, 2023 10:35 am

Dave's Update wrote:Given
[tex]\zeta(z = \frac{1}{2} ± bi, p) = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty }\frac{1}{(kp)^{ \frac{1}{2} ± bi}} = 0[/tex]

and p = 127, compute b.
Guest
 

Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Sat Apr 22, 2023 3:20 pm

Key Idea: p is a prime!

More simply, we have in a nutshell (the source of all prime numbers and the detector of prime numbers),

[tex]\sum_{k=1}^{ \infty } \frac{1}{k} -[/tex] error [tex]= \sum_{k=1}^{ \infty }kp = \infty[/tex] if and only if [tex]\zeta(z = \frac{1}{2} ± bi, p) = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty }\frac{1}{(kp)^{ \frac{1}{2} ± bi}} = 0[/tex] where p is any positive prime number.

Moreover, there are infinitely many prime numbers, and there are also infinitely many simple nontrivial zeta zeros (z) with Re(z) = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex].

Go figure! Go Blue! :D
Guest
 

Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Sat Apr 22, 2023 3:35 pm

Dave's Update wrote:
Key Idea: p is a prime number!

More simply, we have in a nutshell (the source of all prime numbers and the detector of prime numbers),

[tex]\zeta(z = 1) -[/tex] error [tex]= \sum_{k=1}^{ \infty } \frac{1}{k} -[/tex] error [tex]= \sum_{k=1}^{ \infty }kp = \infty[/tex] if and only if [tex]\zeta(z = \frac{1}{2} ± bi, p) = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty }\frac{1}{(kp)^{ \frac{1}{2} ± bi}} = 0[/tex] where p is any positive prime number.

Moreover, there are infinitely many prime numbers, and there are also infinitely many simple nontrivial zeta zeros (z) with Re(z) = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex].

Go figure! Go Blue! :D
Guest
 

Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Sun May 14, 2023 8:56 am

Hmm. What about that error term? What is its true value?
Guest
 

Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Wed May 17, 2023 2:09 pm

Guest wrote:Hmm. What about that error term? What is its true value?


We can compute the finite value, error. Right?
Guest
 

Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Wed Jun 07, 2023 9:59 pm

Author's(David Cole aka Dave, primeworker123, etc.) Link/Information:

David Cole
Attachments
A Few Words About Author – THEORY OF ENERGY.pdf
Go Blue! :-)
(1.18 MiB) Downloaded 255 times
Guest
 

Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Wed Jun 07, 2023 10:28 pm

I, David Cole, am very grateful that the author, Mr. Yordan Petrov Petrov (Dancho), of this wonderful/excellent website, math10.com, allowed me to post my works/findings here. May Lord GOD bless him. Godspeed!

And I hope my work has benefitted the wonderful world of mathematics.

Thank you, Lord GOD Almighty. Amen! :D
Guest
 

Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Fri Jun 09, 2023 1:52 pm

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Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Fri Jun 09, 2023 11:31 pm

Guest wrote:Let's turn our attention to the physics...


I am done with RH/primes mathematically, but the physics (especially the theory of energy) associated with RH etc. is quite interesting. But we'll discuss that somewhere else. Goodbye! :)

Dave.
Guest
 

Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Mon Aug 14, 2023 11:49 am

Guest wrote:
Guest wrote:Let's turn our attention to the physics...


I am done with RH/primes mathematically, but the physics (especially the theory of energy) associated with RH etc. is quite interesting. But we'll discuss that somewhere else. Goodbye! :)

Dave.


Relevant Reference Link:

Riemann Hypothesis
Guest
 

Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Tue Aug 29, 2023 10:55 am

Guest wrote:
Guest wrote:
Guest wrote:Let's turn our attention to the physics...


I am done with RH/primes mathematically, but the physics (especially the theory of energy) associated with RH etc. is quite interesting. But we'll discuss that somewhere else. Goodbye! :)

Dave.


Relevant Reference Link:

Riemann Hypothesis



FYI: Physics of the Riemann Hypothesis
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Guest
 

Re: Why is RH optimum?

Postby Guest » Tue Aug 29, 2023 12:08 pm

Yes! RH is a done deal! But the physics associated with RH is important and interesting... We added the link above to begin that discussion somewhere else.
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