by broniran » Sun Aug 16, 2009 5:02 am
Since it's homogenous we can W.L.O.G assume [tex]xyz=1[/tex]. Then the inequality is equivalent to:
[tex]x^2z+y^2x+z^2y\ge x+y+z[/tex] . Now we can multiply the RHS by [tex]\sqrt[3]{(xyz)^2}=1[/tex] and now the inequality follows from the fact that [tex](2,1,0)\succ (\frac{5}{3},\frac{2}{3},\frac{2}{3})[/tex].